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My recently deceased father-in-law bought my brother-in-law a 2004 Pontiac Grand AM after leasing it new for 3 years. After an argument, my brother-in-law gave the car back to my mother-in-law. She could not afford the payment and so my husband and I drove and made payments on it for 2 years before we had to purchase a new car. Since we were unable to make anymore payments, my mother-in-law decided to turn over the car to the bank. She called the bank and told them to come get it and dropped the insurance. It has been sitting in my driveway for 4 months. She gave them my address, so they know where it is. When will they come get it? Has there ever been a case where a bank didn’t repossess the car? What should I do? I don’t want it in my driveway anymore and my mother-in-law has nowhere to put it.
Selling it isn’t really an option. Even if she would, she could only get half of the loan value. The car is only worth 4,000. So, she still owes a balance that she cannot pay.

I have always purchased my autos from my brother-in-law, who owns an independent (non-franchised) dealer. Since he buys the cars at auction, I save a lot of money. However, I’m currently unable to find anybody making loans for independent dealer purchases and I won’t finance the car through my brother-in-law’s lot. I have a credit score of 791 and have had numerous offers for "franchised" dealer purchases and person to person loans for cars. But none of the banks or lenders are allowing purchases from independent dealers. Where can I get a loan I can use at an independent dealer?

I was never given any information about what was to be done with the car (auction, private sale, etc). Now a couple of months later, I have a collection agency (AIC) calling me. I haven’t answered yet because I really don’t have the time to talk when they do call so I don’t know if it’s post auction or pre auction.
If it’s pre auction, I’m guessing they are just trying to collect the total amount -
Oh, and on a side note, never deal with HSBC or Ed Voyles in the Atlanta area. 2002 Jetta TDI that was k got financed by HSBC for k. That’s 50% interest and Ed Voyles had to lie to the bank saying I was putting k down but wrote me a k ‘miscellaneous’ check and withdrew it after I deposited it into my checking account using the k check I wrote them to be cashed after theirs cleared.
- However, if it’s post auction and they are trying to collect on the remainder of what it didn’t sell for, I’ve never received any written or oral information from the bank regarding what they were going to do with the car. If I’m not mistaken, I was supposed to be informed as to the course of action they would be taking prior to it being taken. If so, I was not.
What ‘rights’ per se do I have if this stipulation holds true?

Thanks in advance.
Ok, you first 3 posters are idiots and trolls.
Read the information. I’m not asking ‘oh lordy lordy what do i do?’

I admit I should have stated that I co-signed with my brother who ended up losing his job [when the layoffs started] just over a year ago and all attempts to keep the payments up HAVE been made, so I’m not some punk who signed a contract and said ‘nah, i don’t wanna pay it.’
I TOLD them to repossess it because they kept calling me asking about when I was going to bring the payments up to date.
My question isn’t How will they, why have they, or when will they repossess it. Those of you who read it as such are retards.

What I asked was [due to some information that I had read regarding Rights of People Going Through a Repossession] if anyone knew of a law that stated what happened when a creditor doesn’t inform you of what will be done to said repo’d property. Such as ‘Breach of Contract’ on the creditor’s end.

Not all repo’s are the fault of the person being repo’d.

I want to buy a used Mustang GT Convertible for my first car, I will be paying for the car monthly as my mom and dad pay for the insurance. But I was talking to my brother and my brother said that if I buy a used car from a dealer, that the insurance will be like 400 bucks instead of 100? Is this true?

My brother in law was down on his luck, so my husband and I decided to sell him our car that we owned. (We have a clear title). We gave him a great deal on the car and only asked for 00. (Half of what the car was worth). We had an orall agreement that we would not sign over the title until the full balance had been paid. He couldnt afford to pay it all upfront so we agreed on 280 dollars a month for 12 months. He payed regularly (for the most part) for 6 months and then just stopped paying because he said "he couldnt afford to pay for it". My brother in law has not attempted to make any kind of payment on the car for 8 months. I feel like he has taken advantage of my husband and I. To date, he owes 1500 dollars on the car. And I am paying his insurance. How do I legally get the car back? Do I have to return to him what he paid on the car if I take it back? My husband and I constantly fight about this. Please help…… This is ruining my marriage.

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