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my loan is usually late but I always pay it.

My mom co-signed on a car loan for me through a financial company 5 yrs ago; she then chose to pay it off and have me make my payments directly to her last year. We had a verbal agreement of what my monthly payments were and that if I didn’t make them the car would in fact, be taken back by her to sell. Soon I lost a major portion of my income and was unable to make full, consistent payments. I sent partial payments that were sometimes late and some months I was unable to make any payment. I kept in open communication via email & phone to let her know what to expect. She would respond neutrally, mostly not addressing it. She recently sent me a certified letter after a fight telling me to pay her what is left owed to her on the car or to return it to her to sell. She also said I would be responsible for the difference (if any) if the car did not sell for what I owed her. We have no signed contract at all; and definitely no verbal agreement saying I would be responsible for the difference if the car was taken.
I relinquished the car to her; there was some small body damage and the check engine light was on. She sold it to her friend for less than what was owed because of the damage; the car did not pass smog and now she wants me to pay for the difference and to fix it to pass smog. I say hell no, that’s her problem now. I live in California and from what I can tell I’m no longer responsible. She wants to take me to small claims court and I feel confident she has no case because we did not have any agreement that I would pay the difference if she sold the car. She’s under the impression that she has the same rights as a financial company because she is lien holder on the title. Is this true? Is there an unspoken agreement that she is exactly like a real company? I figure even companies should have to tell you all the rules up front and not spring it on you later.
her credit isn’t affected bc she already paid it off to the lender last yr.
**I spoke to a lawyer and she DOES NOT get the rights of a lender. The lender has the rights they do because it is in the signed contract. I have fulfilled my end of the agreement by relinquishing the car and the contract has been followed in whole.

I am planning to buy used car whose certificate of title shows loan. Seller is second user and he says loan was taken and paid by first owner & he was able to register without any issues & he says car loan is tied with person and not vehicle. Can any one please advised wether I should buy such vehicle, will it cause any issue when selling it afterwards?

A few years ago I purchased a car with a limited drivers privilege after a DUI. then a couple of months later I was stopped again by a cop and took me to jail for drinking and driving. He then towed my car. My case was dropped due to certain circumstances. I didn’t have enough money to get my car out of the towing yard and they said I needed a licence to get the car out. I called the bank cause they have the title. And they said there is nothing they can do, to just keep on paying the loan. So I’m still paying off a loan for a car I don’t have cause I don’t want bad credit. Is this right? Should I be doing this? or have I been had?

A few years ago I purchased a car with a limited drivers privilege after a DUI. then a couple of months later I was stopped again by a cop and took me to jail for drinking and driving. He then towed my car. My case was dropped due to certain circumstances. I didn’t have enough money to get my car out of the towing yard and they said I needed a licence to get the car out. I called the bank cause they have the title. And they said there is nothing they can do, to just keep on paying the loan. So I’m still paying off a loan for a car I don’t have cause I don’t want bad credit. Is this right? Should I be doing this? or have I been had?

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